ext_152108 ([identity profile] lavendersparkle.livejournal.com) wrote in [personal profile] lavendersparkle 2007-11-20 07:05 pm (UTC)

I've heard better reasons.

1) Is that the Bible is divinely inspired but not infallible. Therefore when one finds a a part that appears to be immoral one may question whether it is really what G@d wants or the product of an imperfect author.

2) Another, mainly Jewish, approach is to ask what exactly 'lie with a man as with a woman' means. Some Jewish opinions have come to the conclusion that it only refers to some sexual acts between men and therefore some other sexual acts are permitted.

3) Some people have argued from experience that they experience their physical relationship with their partner of the same sex as a holy on an instinctual/mystical/spiritual level and therefore conclude that it must be permitted even if they don't understand how that fits in with the Bible.

4) I can't find it now but I think Andrew Wrilstone (http://andrewrilstone.blogspot.com/) wrote something about it talking quite persuasively about what criteria Christians should use to reject some Biblical rules.

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